jeudi 29 août 2013

Is this a fallacy? If so what is it?

In London, if homeless people are found on the street, and then never seen again in a particular period on the streets, they are then presumed to have not spent another night on the streets (I.e, they must have been accommodated).



Is this a fallacy? Is so what is it?





via JREF Forum http://forums.randi.org/showthread.php?t=264517&goto=newpost

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