Why mention both "rape" and "sodomy"?

I was reading this article regarding a UN report into the alleged sexual abuse that happened during a French peacekeeping mission in the Central African Republic in 2014 when i was struck by something in this sentence:

Quote:

Entitled Sexual Abuse on Children by International Armed Forces and stamped “confidential” on every page, the report details the rape and sodomy of starving and homeless young boys by French peacekeeping troops who were supposed to be protecting them at a centre for internally displaced people in Bangui, capital of the Central African Republic.

http://ift.tt/1EUpZA4

In the highlighted part they there's apparently some need to mention both rape and sodomy. By contrast in Swedish articles there's no mention of sodomy at all, they only mention sexual abuse and rape against boys. Thus i wonder: why do British media feel that it's important to mention that male rape victims who were raped by men were sodomized, as if it wasn't obvious?

Is it because anal-sex is much worse and more taboo that "normal" penile-vaginal intercourse, whether or not it involves rape, and they are just abusing said fact for its emotional impact? Or is it because of some incredibly old and antiquated definition of rape which treats "rape" and "sodomy" as something separate?

via International Skeptics Forum http://ift.tt/1GIrPBz